I keep giving PKR a chance ... - Page 2 - PKR Nation - For PKR 3D Poker and Casino Players

Dodgey101 · #11 (**permalink**) 06-01-2007, 08:44 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by FrazDugg

PKR - Game fairness and account security at PKR

Will tell you that their RNG has been evaluated by an independent company, so I think this is slightly different to fruit machines that are obviously programmed to make money.

I disagree. Their RNG has been evaluated, but even pkr say they have software that gives an "extra" shuffle before the deal.

Slot machines are also regulated and tested. Didn't stop them getting away with predetermined outcomes until they were rumbled did it?

I still believe it's the type of players at pkr that are the problem, and I'm sure all the emotes don't help. If I lose at PP I lose and move on, If I lose at PKR someone always calls you a loser or laughs and that tilts me to some degree, so , out of choice , I no longer put money into it. Not a hard choice. And I still don't trust the gambling industry, no matter how many certificates they may attain. I just don't buy it, given their (industry) past record.

Assistanc3 · #12 (**permalink**) 06-01-2007, 09:48 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by TrueForm

600 chips left, pot of around 1700, so odds of about 3-1 if he calls.

1700(pot)+600(bet)+600(call)= 2900/600 =4.8/1 if he calls

Quote:

I still believe it's the type of players at pkr that are the problem

I can assure you that is the reason

people find it to boring to play proper poker

TrueForm · #13 (**permalink**) 06-01-2007, 10:10 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Assistanc3

1700(pot)+600(bet)+600(call)= 2900/600 =4.8/1 if he calls

Not quite

You added my 600 into the equation. I would be betting 600 to win 2300 (1700 in pot plus his bet), which would be 3.8-1. I wouldn't actually win my 600, just get it back, hence 3.8 to 1

Assistanc3 · #14 (**permalink**) 06-01-2007, 10:23 PM

yes of course I added yours, as you bet the 600 and then its his turn to act.
"if he calls" he has 4.8/1

once you make the bet, its no longer yours.

TrueForm · #15 (**permalink**) 06-01-2007, 11:55 PM

What? Confused are we ....

Firstly, we were talking about my odds.
Secondly, we both have odds of 3.8 to 1

If he calls, he too would be betting 600 to win 2300

Go test it. Find a horse at 3.8-1 and bet $600. See how much you 'win'

You would get 2900 back, but only 2300 would be 'won'

2900/600 is NOT 4.8-1, as you stated. It is actually 3.8-1

Assistanc3 · #16 (**permalink**) 06-02-2007, 12:08 AM

so if you lose do u get the 600 back ? no cause it is no longer yours

2900/600 is not 4.8, your right, it is = 4.83333333

TrueForm · #17 (**permalink**) 06-02-2007, 12:18 AM

Yep, 4.833333. But you aren't going to win 2900, you will win 2300

Assistanc3 · #18 (**permalink**) 06-02-2007, 12:26 AM

technically by your odds, you actually only win like ~$1400
dpending on who was on the blinds n what they are...........

so your math looks like....
(total pot) - (your bet/blind) = your pot /outs = odds

TrueForm · #19 (**permalink**) 06-02-2007, 12:37 AM

lol, I really thought you had more about you. You are complicating things too much in your head.

It's simple. The pot is 1700. I bet 600. If he calls (and I won), I would win 1700 + his 600 and get my 600 back. 2300/600 = 3.8-1

If he called and won, the pot would be 2300 so he would be 2300/600 too.

By your thinking, if I bet with you $500 that heads would come up. We both put $500 into the pot.

Your way of calculating odds would be (in poker terms): bet (500) plus call (500) = 1000/500 = 2-1. So do you think you are getting odds of 2-1 there? Or as it actually is, 1-1? If you do think it's 2-1, how the hell are you winning at poker?

Assistanc3 · #20 (**permalink**) 06-02-2007, 12:55 AM

lol you didnt account for my outs now did you?
2 choices to hit 1

(2-1) / (2-1)

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